Ch 3 practice test. Name: Class: Date: Matching

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Name: Class: Date: Ch 3 practice test Matching Match each item with the correct statement below. a. absolute zero e. mass b. Kelvin temperature scale f. significant figure c. Celsius temperature scale g. precision d. weight h. accuracy 1. closeness to true value 2. narrowness of range of measurements 3. known or estimated in a measurement 4. the quantity of matter an object contains 5. the lowest point on the Kelvin scale 6. the SI scale for temperature 7. the force of gravity on an object 8. the non-si scale for temperature Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is. a. 5.008 10 3 km c. 5.008 10 3 km b. 50.08 10 4 km d. 5.008 10 4 km 10. What is the result of multiplying 2.5 10 10 by 3.5 10 7? a. 8.75 10 3 c. 8.8 10 3 b. 8.75 10 17 d. 8.8 10 17 11. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its. a. precision c. reproducibility b. accuracy d. usefulness 12. Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures? a. 0.004 00 L c. 0.000 44 L b. 0.004 04 L d. 0.004 40 L 13. When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve? a. precision c. reliability b. accuracy d. all of the above 14. Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate? a. 3.1000 g c. 3.122 22 g b. 3.100 00 g d. 3.000 000 g 15. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.) a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g 1

Name: 16. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures? a. 0.007 m c. 7.30 10 7 km b. 7077 mg d. 0.070 mm 17. In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit? a. 5 b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3 c. 3 d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point 18. How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg? a. two c. five b. four d. This cannot be determined. 19. How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg? a. two c. four b. three d. five 20. How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams? a. two c. four b. three d. five 21. Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 12.68 m c. 13 m b. 12.7 m d. 10 m 22. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits? a. 1.0 10 3 L c. 1050 L b. 1040 L d. 1.1 10 3 L 23. When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in. a. all of the measurements b. the least and most precise measurements c. the most precise measurement d. the least precise measurement 24. What is the volume of a salt crystal measuring 2.44 10 2 m by 1.4 10 3 m by 8.4 10 3 m? a. 2.9 10 7 m 3 c. 2.9 10 5 m 3 b. 2.9 10 6 m 3 d. 2.9 10 4 m 3 25. What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix centi-? a. 1000 c. 1/10 b. 100 d. 1/100 26. The chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it. a. has more units c. is in French b. is in multiples of 10 d. is derived from nature itself 27. Which of the following units is NOT an official SI unit? a. kilogram c. mole b. ampere d. liter 28. Which of the following volumes is the smallest? a. one microliter c. one milliliter b. one liter d. one deciliter 2

Name: 29. What is the SI unit of mass? a. liter c. candela b. joule d. kilogram 30. What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C? a. 373 C c. 173 C b. 273 C d. 73 C 31. Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures? a. Celsius c. Joule b. Fahrenheit d. Kelvin 32. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins? a. 0 K c. 273 K b. 100 K d. 373 K 33. Which of the following mass units is the largest? a. 1 cg c. 1 mg b. 1 dg d. 1 ng 34. The weight of an object. a. is the same as its mass c. is not affected by gravity b. depends on its location d. is always the same 35. What is the temperature 34 C expressed in kelvins? a. 139 K c. 239 K b. 207 K d. 339 K 36. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius? a. 93 C c. 61 C b. 34 C d. 34 C 37. What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.075 cm c. 7.5 cm b. 0.75 cm d. 70.5 cm 38. What is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters? Use the table above to help you. a. 7.896 m c. 789.6 m b. 78.96 m d. 789,600 m 39. What is the quantity 987 milligrams expressed in grams? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.000 987 g c. 9.87 g b. 0.987 g d. 98,700 g 40. Which of the following equalities is NOT correct? Use the table above to help you. a. 100 cg = 1 g c. 1 cm 3 = 1 ml b. 1000 mm = 1 m d. 10 kg = 1 g 41. The quantity 44 liters expressed in cubic meters is. a. 0.000 044 m 3 c. 0.44 m 3 b. 440 000 m 3 d. 0.044 m 3 42. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm 3? a. 0.32 g/cm 3 c. 3.1 g/cm 3 b. 2.0 g/cm 3 d. 200 g/cm 3 3

Name: 43. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/ml? a. 5.6 10 1 c. 8.8 10 3 b. 1.1 10 2 d. 8.0 10 1 44. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance. a. increases c. decreases b. is not affected d. fluctuates 4

Ch 3 practice test Answer Section MATCHING 1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 2. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 3. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 STA: Ch.4.f 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 STA: Ch.4.d 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3.2.2 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3.2.2 STA: Ch.4.d MULTIPLE CHOICE 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 63 OBJ: 3.1.1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 63 p. 71 OBJ: 3.1.1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 66 17. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 1

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 21. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 68 p. 70 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 66 p. 68 23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 p. 71 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 68 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 73 27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 73 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 p. 75 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 STA: Ch.4.e 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 STA: Ch.4.f 32. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 STA: Ch.4.e 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 74 p. 76 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3.2.2 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 p. 78 OBJ: 3.2.3 STA: Ch.4.e 36. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 77 p. 78 OBJ: 3.2.3 STA: Ch.4.e 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 84 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 84 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 84 OBJ: 3.3.3 42. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 90 p. 91 OBJ: 3.4.1 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 OBJ: 3.4.1 2

44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 OBJ: 3.4.2 3